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Share/Save/Bookmark Login/ Register to Bookmark Topic : "good an' simple" Started by Maths Musing

Maths Musing

#1 Posted 10:39pm 13-01-10  

good an' simple

Good an' simple --- try this one ---

Given four distinct numbers in the interval (0,1) , show that there exists 2 numbers among them x

and y , such that ------

[im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?0%20%3C%20x%20%5Csqrt%7B1%20-%20y%5E%7B2%7D%7D%20-%20y%20%5Csqrt%7B1%20-%20x%5E%7B2%7D%7D%20%3C%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D[/im]





First is first , and the rest are no-where .    

Soumik

#2 Posted 10:54pm 13-01-10  

Re: good an' simple

Let the nos. be of the form sin[p]-1[/p]a, sin[p]-1[/p]b, sin[p]-1[/p]c, sin[p]-1[/p]d....

Since they lie within pi to -pi, difference of some 2 must be less than pi\6....Now applying sin[p]-1x[/p]-sin[p]-1[/p]y formula , we have our result.
To most men, experience is like the stern lights of a ship, which illumine only the track it has passed.    

Maths Musing

#3 Posted 11:48pm 13-01-10  

Re: good an' simple

Sorry , You missed the main part of the question  -- that there are indeed such two angles -- that is what you have to prove ----

[hide]P.S -- sin[p]-1[/p]x  - sin[p]-1[/p]y formula comes under many conditions , all of which you have to check ---[/hide]
First is first , and the rest are no-where .    

theprophet

#4 Posted 2:02pm 14-01-10  

Re: good an' simple

Divide the open interval into [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?%5Cleft%280%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%20%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%28%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B3%7D%20%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%28%5Cfrac%7B2%7D%7B3%7D%2C1%20%5Cright%5D[/im]

Then there exist two numbers [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?%5Ctheta%2C%20%5Cphi[/im] such that [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?%5Ctheta-%20%5Cphi%20%3C%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D[/im] ...
   

Soumik

#5 Posted 10:50pm 16-01-10  

Re: good an' simple

Sorry Soumya - indeed it's u (& not me), who actually missed out....in my earlier post, the solution is actually hidden.

Since any real between 0 and 1 can be expressed in terms of [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?sin%5E%7B-1%7Dx_i[/im], Let the reals be [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?sin%5E%7B-1%7Dx_i%20%3Da_i[/im].

Given (Obvious - don't ask me to prove this), that [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?a_1-a_4%5Cle%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D[/im]

So if I order the reals in an ascending order, we have [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?a_1%3Ea_2%3Ea_3%3Ea_4[/im]

Now that gives that the difference of some [im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?%28a_i-a_%7Bi+1%7D%29%5Cle%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B6%7D[/im]

From which our result follows.

Now let's come to ur point....I'll be happy if u've finally understood what we had to prove and what I've proved. I'd surely be happier, if u mention those conditions that ought to have been checked by me before applying sin inverse formual in this problem.

Leaving it to u for completing this thread.
To most men, experience is like the stern lights of a ship, which illumine only the track it has passed.    
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