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#1 Posted 7:58pm 08-03-09 Inequalitieslet a,b,c,d be real nubers each greater than 1. prove that 8(abcd+1) > (a+1)(b+1)(c+1)(d+1) |
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#2 Posted 6:46pm 09-03-09 Re: InequalitiesJust substitute a=1+A b=1+B c=1+C d=1+D AS they all are >1 : = A,B,C,D >0 then we need to prove 8((1+A)(1+B)(1+C)(1+D)+1)>(A+2)(B+2)(C+2)(D+2) => 8(ABCD+ΣABC+ΣAB+ΣA+2)>16((A/2)(B/2)(C/2)(D/2)+ΣABC/8 +(ΣAB/4)+ΣA/2+1) simplifying , 8ABCD+8ΣABC+8ΣAB+8ΣA+16>ABCD+2ΣABC+4ΣAB+8ΣA+16 which can be clearly seen
All play and no work makes Rohan a full boy !. |
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#3 Posted 7:10pm 09-03-09 Re: InequalitiesWLOG a[im]http://codecogs.izyba.com/gif.latex?a%20%5Cge%20b%20%5Cge%20c%20%5Cge%20d[/im] The sequences (1,1) and (a,b) are similarly ordered. So, from Chebyshev's Inequality, we have 2(1+ab) >=(1+a)(1+b) Similarly, we get 2(1+cd) >= (1+c)(1+d) Again, the sequences (1,1) and (ab,cd) are similarly sorted. So, 2(1+abcd) >= (1+ab)(1+cd) Hence 8(1+abcd) >= 2(1+ab) 2(1+cd) >= (1+a)(1+b)(1+c)(1+d) |
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#4 Posted 7:12pm 09-03-09 Re: Inequalities@prophet sir what u've used---- Chebyshev's is it mandatory to know it for jee
the Grandmaster is back |
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#5 Posted 7:30pm 09-03-09 Re: InequalitiesI dont think so. I havent seen any real use of inequalities in JEE beyond AM-GM. The standard ones in Integrals (Riemann sums), and m(b-a) <= I <= M(b-a) those are used at times
Edited on 7:48pm 09-03-09 |
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#6 Posted 10:11pm 09-03-09 Re: Inequalitiesnice solution prophet sir. a,b,c are positive real numbers. prove [image]12116868.jpg[/image] |
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#7 Posted 11:41pm 09-03-09 Re: Inequalitiesknowing Chebychef's,Cauchy-Schwarz,Jensons....helps a lot.....[1] |
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#8 Posted 09:31am 10-03-09 Re: Inequalitieshey minister eureka can u post an article over Chebychef's,Cauchy-Schwarz,Jensons
the Grandmaster is back |
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#9 Posted 09:51am 10-03-09 integrate this demon!∫√1+x[p]3[/p].dx
If i cannot do it ....... be sure i will do it ! |
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#10 Posted 09:54am 10-03-09 Re: Inequalitiesplease post in a new thread...
IIT has walked to me ... off to IIT K |
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#11 Posted 03:52am 11-03-09 Re: Inequalitieswell we see that a[p]2[/p]+b[p]2[/p]/a+b >(a+b)/2 as It reduces to a[p]2[/p]+b[p]2[/p]>2ab which is true as (a-b)[p]2[/p]>0 so applying it on the other two terms we get >= (a+b)/2 +(b+c)/2 + (c+a)/2=a+b+c |
